NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology

NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

NR-507 Week 1 Introduction (required but not graded)

NR 507 Week 1 Open Forum Discussion

Share with the class the name of your disease process assigned to you by your faculty this week. Tell us if this is a disease that you have encountered in caring for patients in your own nursing practice. Feel free to share a practice exemplar. If this is a completely new disease that you will learn about, tell us if it relates tHo your nursing practice in terms of the populations for which you care.

NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

NR-507 Week 2 Disease Process Presentation Part One (Collection)

Purpose

The purpose of the Week 2 Disease Process Assignment Part 1 is for learners to:

• Develop professional presentation/communication skills.
• Demonstrate understanding of the risk factors for disease development.
• Demonstrate understanding of the progression of a disease from the initial injury to the defect in the tissue, organ and system functioning.
• Describe the role of the health care provider in the prevention of the disease.
  

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NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

Description of the Assignment

In Week 7, students will present an audio/video PowerPoint presentation using the Disease Process Presentation Guidelines and Rubric located under Course Resources. To ensure timely development of the Week 7 assignment and an opportunity to receive feedback from the course faculty. After students have received faculty feedback on Parts 1 and 2, students will develop the final presentation that is audio and video recorded and uploaded to the Week 7 Discussion Board.

Criteria for Content

• Introduce the disease with a brief definition and description
• Discuss the Risk Factors and the connection to the Etiology of the initial injury to the cell/tissue/organ.
• Show the progression from the initial injury to the defect in the tissue, organ and system functioning.
• Discuss health care provider implications for prevention of the disease.
• Provide a summary slide that highlights main points presented.
• Reference slide and in-text citations depict references correctly cited according to APA. 

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NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

NR 507 Week 2 Open Forum Discussion

As you are completing Part I of your disease process presentation. Tell us about the etiology and risk factors of your … disease and what you feel is the role of the family nurse practitioner in preventing the occurrence of this disease.

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NR-507 Week 2 Quiz: (Quiz + Study Guide)

NR 507 Week 2 Quiz – Real Exam Q & A

1. Question: All of the following are characteristics that occur with any type of acute inflammation except? p.214
2. Question: The primary phagocytic cells in the immune systems are (p. 199)
3. Question: Which of the ff is NOT a function of T- Cells?
4. Question: Chronic inflammation is defined as a long- term inflammatory response that last? P.214
5. Question: The immune components to appear first in ANY immune response are?
6. Question: Biopsy results for tumor staging would indicate? P. 394
7. Question: The process by which tumors develop new vascular networks is?
8. Question: The TNM classification system for clinical staging of cancer indicates p. 1238
9. Question: All of the ff are characteristics of benign cells EXCEPT? P.364
10. Question: All of the ff statements are true concerning the development of cancer EXCEPT?
11. Question: Which would not shift the blood pH towards alkalosis? Fig 3-15, p 128
12. Question: Hypoventilation can result in____________ leading to _____________ p. 130
13. Question: … compartment that includes cerebral spinal fluid, peritoneal, and synovial fluid is known as?
14. Question: Most of our body water is located in?
15. Question: Interstitial fluid (IF) is located?
16. Question: A deficiency in oxygen will cause all of the ff except? P. 29 fig 1-26
17. Question: Which of the following organelle-function pairs is NOT correctly matched? P. 11
18. Question: The endoplasmic reticulum (ER) provides a large surface area within the cells in which: p. 5
19. Question: Which cell structure is responsible for digestion of foreign debris and worn out part of the cells? P. 7
20. Question: The fluid Mosaic model explains: p. 12
    

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NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

NR 507 Week 2 Quiz – Study Guide

Cellular Structure and Function:

• Fluid Mosaic Model (plasma membrane)
• Structure of the cell along with their functions
• Endoplasmic Reticulum
• Cellular digestion
  • Phase 1: Extracellular Enzyme Digestion
  • ………….. Cytoplasmic Enzyme Digestion
  • Phase 3: Intramitochondrial Digestion

Cancer:

• How Cancer Develops
• Characteristics of Benign Cells
• How tumors develop new vascular networks
• Biopsy Results for Tumor Staging
• TNM Classification 

Immunity:

• Review cells involved in immune response and their function
• Acute and Chronic Inflammation: Characteristics of Both
• T-Cell Function 

Fluid and Electrolytes:

• Review concepts of fluid shift from intracellular to extracellular compartments
• Review interstitial fluid compartments
• Body Fluid Compartments 

Acid/Base Balance:

• Review basic concepts of acid/base balance, including shifts in acid/base status
• Results of Hypoventilation on acid/base balance

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NR 507 Week 3 Discussion Question: Congestive Heart Failure

A 64-year-old woman presents to the primary care office with shortness of breath, leg swelling, and fatigue. She has a history of type 2 diabetes and hypertension. She reports that recently she had been able to go for daily walks with her friends, but in the past month, the walks have become more difficult due to shortness of breath and fatigue. … also sometimes awakens in the middle of the night due to shortness of breath and has to prop herself up on three pillows. On physical examination, she is tachycardic (110 beats per minute) and has a blood pressure of 106/74 mm Hg. Fine crackles are noted on inspiration in bilateral bases.

The cardiac exam reveals the presence of a third and fourth heart sound and jugular venous distension. 2+ pitting edema is … in the knees bilaterally. An ECG shows sinus rhythm at 110 bpm with Q waves in the anterior leads. An echocardiogram shows decreased wall motion of the anterior wall of the heart and an estimated ejection fraction of 25%. She is … with systolic heart failure, secondary to a silent MI.

1. Discuss the pathophysiological mechanisms that can lead to heart failure.
2. Differentiate between systolic and diastolic heart dysfunction
3. Discuss the causes of the patient’s shortness of breath, awakening in the middle of the night and the need to prop herself up on three pillows. Include pathophysiological mechanisms that causes each of these signs and symptoms.
4. Include two points of teaching for this patient
5. Support your response with at least one current evidence-based resource.
6. Students must post a minimum of three times in each graded discussion (see participation guidelines on the discussion rubric).

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NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

NR-507 Week 4 Midterm Exam

1. Question: Hypertension (high blood pressure) will have its most immediate effect on
2. Question: Mature, circulating RBC’s lack endoplasmic reticulum. Without these structures RBC’s are completely unable to synthesize any
3. Question: Which of the following would indicate that a client with chronic bronchitis has developed secondary polycythemia vera:
4. Question: The amount of blood the heart can hold
5. Question: Glomerulonephritis is associated with a(n)
6. Question: Which of the following would not typically be observed in a client with asthma
7. Question: A prolonged episode of tachycardia will result in
8. Question: Tubular reabsorption and tubular secretion differ in that
9. Question: After erythrocytes have completed their lifespan \, they are removed by macrophages located mainly in the
10. Question: Alveolar hyperinflation occurs in asthma and chronic bronchitis as the result of
11. Question: The primary site of damage in the nephron due to ischemic conditions is the
12. Question: The movement of blood into and out of the capillary beds of the lungs to the body tissues and cells describes the process of
13. Question: A 5-year-old female presents with frequent urinary tract infections, imagine studies indicate a retrograde flow of urine from the urinary bladder into the urethers. This is indicative of
14. Question: A 30 year old client who had a gastrectomy procedure 1 year ago is most at risk for the development of
15. Question: A deficiency of intrinsic factor (IF) will most likely result in
16. Question: During ventricular systole
17. Question: A deficiency of transferrin is most likely to result in
18. Question: The primary source of erythropoietin is the
19. Question: Which of the following is not a condition associated with renal rfailure
20. Question: A 25 year old female presents with frequent complete calculi blockage of one ureter. This is referred to as
21. Question: Contractility of cardia muscle is directly dependent on the level of
22. Question: Appropriate management of progressive renal failure typically includes
23. Question: In addition to oxygen, hemoglobin also carries nitric oxide (NO) No is important for
24. Question: Which equation correctly represents cardiac output (CO)
25. Question: Which of the following statements correctly describes the flow of blood between the heart and lungs
26. Question: Blood (hydrostatic) pressure is most important for the process of
27. Question: Preload can be decreased by all the following except
28. Question: Cardiac tamponade
29. Question: The lamina propria area of the bronchioles play a significant role in the pathogenesis of chronic bronchitis because this is where
30. Question: which of the following will occur when calcium binds to troponin
31. Question: The average red blood cell lifespan is approximately
32. Question: The correct definition of afterload is
33. Question: An accident victim transfused with the incorrect blood type is at most risk for development of
34. Question: A client is experiencing congestive heart failure (CHF) which of the … represent the correct sequence of events that occur with CHF
35. Question: The condition most … with a history of seasonal and/or chronic allergies is
36. Question: Preload refers specifically to
37. Question: ACE (angiotensin converting enzyme)
38. Question: Closure of the semilunar valves (SLV)
39. Question: A 78-year old patient is scheduled for an imaging procedure using contrast dye,. Although rare you know that he may be at risk for contrast induced nephropathy (CIN) because of his history of
40. Question: The normal primary site of hematopoiesis in the adult is
41. Question: A 78-year-old male has been … with benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH) the increases his risk for development of
42. Question: After load can be increase by all the following except
43. Question: The blood disorders sickle-cell anemia and thalassemia are
44. Question: Treatment for asthma included anticholinergic drugs. The mechanism of action for the medication is to
45. Question: A client who is 2 days post-partum is most at risk for development of
46. Question: A client with chronic bronchitis is most likely to experience
47. Question: An aortic semilunar valve stenosis would have the most immediate effect by
48. Question: In the healthy heart the response to an increase in preload is for stroke volume to
49. Question: Decreased contractibility can … caused by all the following except
50. Question: Cor pulmonale refers to

NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

NR 507 Week 4 Midterm – Exam  Solutions

1. Question: What is the final stage of the infectious process?
2. Question: Where in the respiratory tract do the majority of foreign objects aspirated by children finally lodge?
3. Question: What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
4. Question: Which statement concerning benign tumors is true?
5. Question: Which compensatory mechanism is spontaneously … by children … with tetralogy of Fallot to relieve hypoxic spells?
6. Question: Which cytokines initiate the production of corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH)?
7. Question: Hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) can occur if the mother: Is Rh-positive and the fetus is ———
8. Question: Decreased lung compliance means that the lungs are demonstrating which characteristic?
9. Question: Which statement concerning exotoxins is true?
10. Question: What is the ratio of coronary capillaries to cardiac muscle cells?
11. Question: How high does the plasma glucose have to … before the threshold for glucose is achieved?
12. Question: What is the chief predisposing factor for respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
13. Question: Perceived stress elicits an emotional, anticipatory response that begins where?
14. Question: Causes of hyperkalemia include:
15. Question: Between which months of age does sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) most often occur?
16. Question: What is the fundamental physiologic manifestation of anemia?
17. Question: What is the life span of platelets (in days)?
18. Question: What part of the kidney controls renal blood flow, glomerular filtration, and renin secretion?
19. Question: An infant has a loud, harsh, holosystolic murmur and systolic thrill that can … detected at the left lower sternal border that radiates to the neck. These clinical findings are consistent with which congenital heart defect?
20. Question: The coronary ostia are … in the:
21. Question: The only surface inside the nephron where cells are covered with microvilli to increase the reabsorptive surface area is called the:
22. Question: The drug heparin acts in hemostasis by which processes?
23. Question: Which immunoglobulin (Ig) is present in childhood asthma?
24. Question: Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is … with which type of hypersensitivity reaction?
25. Question: Which organ is stimulated during the alarm phase of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS)?
26. Question: Which congenital heart defects occur in trisomy 13, trisomy 18, and Down syndrome?
27. Question: What substance stimulates renal hydroxylation in the process of producing vitamin D?
28. Question: Which term is … to identify the movement of gas and air into and out of the lungs?
29. Question: Where are antibodies produced?
30. Question: What is the most common cause of insufficient erythropoiesis in children?
31. Question: In a normal, nonmutant state, an oncogene is … to as a:
32. Question: Which manifestations of vasoocclusive crisis are … with sickle cell disease (SCD) in infants?
33. Question: What is the life span of an erythrocyte (in days)?
34. Question: Which term is … to describe a muscle cell showing a reduced ability to form new muscle while appearing highly disorganized?
35. Question: Which hepatitis virus is known to … sexually transmitted?
36. Question: What is the primary problem resulting from respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) of the newborn?
37. Question: What is the action of urodilatin?
38. Question: Erythrocyte life span of less than 120 days, ineffective bone marrow response to erythropoietin, and altered iron metabolism describe the pathophysiologic characteristics of which type of anemia?
39. Question: The function of the foramen ovale in a fetus allows what to occur?
40. Question: What is the most abundant class of plasma protein?
41. Question: When a patient has small, vesicular lesions that last between 10 and 20 days, which sexually transmitted infection is suspected?
42. Question: During an IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, which leukocyte is activated?
43. Question: What effect do natriuretic peptides have during heart failure when the heart dilates?
44. Question: Blood vessels of the kidneys are … by the:
45. Question: What is the first stage in the infectious process?
46. Question: Which drug may … prescribed orally for outbreak management of herpes simplex viral (HSV) infections?
47. Question: What is the most common cause of iron deficiency anemia (IDA)?
48. Question: Causes of hyperkalemia include:
49. Question: A person with type O blood is … the universal blood donor because type O blood contains which of the following?
50. Question: Which type of antibody is involved in type I hypersensitivity reaction?
51. Question: Which cardiac chamber has the thinnest wall and why?
52. Question: Which criterion is … to confirm a diagnosis of asthma in an 8-year-old child?
53. Question: The lung is … by the parasympathetic nervous system via which nerve?
54. Question: The generation of clonal diversity occurs primarily during which phase of life?
55. Question: What is the role of collagen in the clotting process?
56. Question: What physical sign is the result of turbulent blood flow through a vessel?
57. Question: The most common site of metastasis for a patient diagnosed with prostate cancer is which location?
58. Question: What is the direct action of atrial natriuretic hormone?
59. Question: Continuous increases in left ventricular filing pressures result in which disorder?
60. Question: Phagocytosis involves neutrophils actively attacking, engulfing, and destroying which microorganisms?

NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Solutions

1. Question: A 10 year old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He experiences a severe allergic reaction and has to go to the ER. The nurse providing care realizes this reaction is the result of:
2. Question: Chronic bronchitis is characterized by:
3. Question: A 6 year old female is … with a bacterial infection of the respiratory system. Which of the following will most likely try to fight the antigen?
4. Question: A 52 year old male is … with urinary tract obstruction. While designing the treatment plan, the nurse realizes that the patient is … to  have hydronephrosis and a decreased glomerular filtration rate caused by:
5. Question: Which hormone is synthesized and secreted by the kidneys to stimulate bone marrow production of red blood cells?
6. Question: A 4 year old male is … with nephrotic syndrome. Which of the following assessment findings accompanies this condition?
7. Question: During which stage of human development does the role of epigenetics have the greatest impact on the development of epigenetic abnormalities?
8. Question: Under most circumstances, increased work of breathing results in:
9. Question: The renin-angiotensin system will … activated by:
10. Question: A nurse realizes glucose will … excreted in the urine when:
11. Question: The FNP is giving an example of inflammation as an etiology for cancer development. What is the best example the FNP should give?
12. Question: Which type of nephron determines the concentration of the urine?
13. Question: A 22 year old was recently … with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus?
14. Question: What type of phagocytic cell lies between the layers of the renal capillaries?
15. Question: A 35 year old hypertensive male begins taking a diuretic. Which of the following common side effects of this medication should the nurse monitor?
16. Question: The movement of blood info and out of the capillary beds of the lungs to the body tissues and cells describes the process of:
17. Question: Which of the following terms should the nurse use when there is a balance between outward recoil of the chest wall and inward recoil of lungs at rest?
18. Question: Upon examination of the male infant, it is … that the urethral meatus is … undersurface of the penis. The nurse will document this condition as:
19. Question: If the FNP wants to obtain the best estimate of renal function, which test should the nurse monitor?
20. Question: A 54 year old male with a long history of smoking complains of excessive tiredness, shortness of breath, and overall ill feelings. Lab results reveal decreased pH, increased CO2, and normal bicarbonate ion. These findings help to confirm the diagnosis of:
21. Question: A 5 year old male presents with low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, and involuntary rapid muscular contraction. Laboratory testing reveals decreased calcium levels. Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?
22. Question: When the FNP is checking the urinalysis, plasma proteins should be absent from the urine because:
23. Question: A 55 year old female reports urinary retention. Tests reveal a lower urinary tract obstruction. Which of the following is of most concern to the nurse?
24. Question: The lamina propria area of the bronchioles plays a significant role in the pathogenesis of chronic bronchitis because this is where:
25. Question: Pulmonary function tests reveal that an 80 year old dyspneic patient has an increase in residual volume. The FNP suspects the most likely cause of the increased residual volume is ____ in lung compliance.
26. Question: The nurse practitioner would correctly respond that the etiology of a congenital immune deficiency is due to a:
27. Question: Carbon dioxide is mainly … in the blood:
28. Question: The glomerular filtration rate (GFR) is directly … to the :
29. Question: When considering abnormal epigenetic modifications, what factor is currently being viewed as strongly … with the development of some cancers?
30. Question: Which of the following clusters of symptoms would support a child’s diagnosis of glomerulonephritis?
31. Question: When a staff member asks which of the following substances is actively secreted by the renal tubules, what is the FNP’s best response?
32. Question: A client with chronic bronchitis is most likely to experience:
33. Question: An infant is experiencing hemolytic disease of the newborn. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in the infant’s history and physical?
34. Question: During inspiration, muscular contraction of the diaphragm causes air to move into the lung. The mechanism that drives air movement during inspiration results is a:
35. Question: A 10 year old child is … with glomerulonephritis. Tests reveal the deposition of immunoglobulin IgA in the glomerular capillaries. The nurse will monitor for recurrent:
36. Question: When the FNP discusses the glomerulus and bowman’s capsule together, it is referred to as the renal:
37. Question: Which of the following buffer pairs is … the major plasma buffering system?
38. Question: The condition most associated with a history of seasonal and/or chronic allergies is:
39. Question: A 15 year old presents with flank pain, irritability, malaise, and fever and is diagnosed with glomerulonephritis. What is the most likely cause of this condition?
40. Question: Treatment for asthma includes anticholinergic drugs. The mechanism of action for these medications is to:
41. Question: A 60 year old with a 25 year history of smoking is … with emphysema. Assessment shows an increased anterior-posterior chest diameter. The nurse attributes this finding to:
42. Question: In a patient with acidosis, the nurse would expect the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to shift:
43. Question: Reabsorption of water in the collecting ducts requires which hormone?
44. Question: The descending segment of the loop of Henle primarily allows for:
45. Question: A 30 year old male was … with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective?
46. Question: Where does the majority of sodium reabsorption take place?
47. Question: When discussing the functional unit of the kidney, what term should the FNP use?
48. Question: What characteristic of Prader-Willi syndrome is not a characteristic of angelman syndrome?

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NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Study Guide (Multiple Variants)

NR-507 Week 4 Midterm Study Guide (Variant 1)

Pulmonary

1. Concepts of anticholinergic drug and asthma:
2. Bronchitis & associated pathogenesis:
3. Chronic bronchitis and related acid/base disturbance:
4. Perfusion:
5. Blood flow between the heart and lungs in chronic bronchitis:
6. Asthma signs and symptoms:
7. Bronchioles in asthma:
8. Alveolar hyperinflation with asthma:
9. Polycythemia Vera:
10. Mechanism of action of anticholinergic drugs to treat asthma:

Cardiovascular:

11. Review concepts of Cardiac Output:
12. Concepts of cardiac contractility:
13. Preload and Afterload Concepts:
14. Systole and Diastole:
15. Heart valves: When they open and close
16. The production of heart sounds S1 and S2 :
17. Stenosis of the heart valves and effects;
18. Stroke Volume:
19. Cor Pulmonale:
20. Heart Failure:
21. Hypertension: Patho:
22. Calcium binding and troponin:

NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

ATP IS REQUIRED TO FACILLITATE THIS INTERACTION

Hematology:

23. Hematopoiesis
24. Risk factors for developing any type of anemia:
25. Iron Deficiency Anemia:
26. Erythrocyte function and lifespan:
27. Sickle cell anemia:
28. Thalassemia:
29. Pernicious Anemia:
30. Hemolytic Anemia:
31. Erythropoetin:
32. Function of hemoglobin:
33. Development of anemia due to gastrectomy:
34. Effect of being transfused with the incorrect blood type:

Genitourinary/ Renal:

35. Anatomy and physiology of the kidney:
36. Nephron damage:
37. Tubular reabsorption and Tubular secretion:
38. Conditions associated with renal failure:
39. Calculi blockage of the ureter:
40. Benign Prostatic hypertrophy:
41. Prerenal, intrarenal and postrenal disease and what causes it:
42. Glomerulonephritis:
43. Treatment for renal failure:
44. Blood hydrostatic pressure:
45. Kidney filtration:
46. Role of angiotensin converting enzyme ACE:
47. Role of the Macrophage:
    

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NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

NR 507 Week 4 Midterm Study Guide (Variant 2)

Pulmonary: 

• Review concepts related to anticholinergic drugs and the treatment for asthma
• Bronchitis and associated pathogenesis
• Chronic bronchitis and related acid/base disturbances, perfusion, blood flow between the heart and lungs
• Asthma signs and symptoms
• Bronchioles
• Alveolar hyperinflation with asthma
• Polycythemia vera
• Mechanism of action of anticholinergic drugs to treat asthma

Cardiovascular: 

• Cardiac output
• Cardiac contractility
• Preload/afterload
• Systole/diastole
• Heart valves (when they are open and closed; the production of S1 & S2)
• Stenosis of the heart valves and effects
• Stroke volume
• Cor Pulmonale
• Heart failure and physiologic processes that lead to heart failure symptoms
• Hypertension
• Calcium binding and troponin

Hematology:

• Hematopoiesis
• Risk factors and causes for developing any type of anemia
• Iron-deficiency anemia
• Erythrocyte function and lifespan
• Sickle-cell anemia
• Thalassemia
• Pernicious anemia
• Hemolytic anemia
• Erythropoietin
• Functions of hemoglobin
• Development of anemia due to gastrectomy
• Effects of being transfused with incorrect blood type

NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

Genitourinary/Renal: 

• Anatomy and physiology of the kidney
• Nephron damage
• Tubular reabsorption
• Tubular Secretion
• Conditions associated with renal failure
• Calculi blockage of ureter
• Benign prostatic hypertrophy
• Prerenal, intrarenal, and postrenal disease and what causes them
• Glomerulonephritis
• Treatment of renal failure
• Blood hydrostatic pressure
• Kidney filtration
• Role of angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)

Immunity:

• Role of macrophages
  

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NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

NR 507 Week 4 Mid-Term Study Guide (Extra Study)

Review concepts related to anticholinergic drugs and the treatment for asthma, bronchitis and … pathogenesis; chronic bronchitis and related acid/base disturbances, perfusion, blood flow between the heart and lungs, asthma signs and symptoms, bronchioles, alveolar hyperinflation with asthma, polycythemia vera; mechanism of action of anticholinergic drugs to treat asthma

Chronic Bronchitis:
Cardiovascular: GRANT FRIBERG, ERICA LUDWIG, Sheila Cardoniga
Review concepts related to cardiac output (cardiac contractility, preload, afterload):
Systole:
diastole:
Cardiac output (CO):
Stroke volume:
Diastole:
Systole:
4 FACTORS AFFECT CARDIAC OUTPUT:
Heart Failure
Pathophysiology of Ventricular Remodeling
Calcium binding and troponin:
THIS IS HEMODYNAMICS!
Hematology: JAMIE BASSETT, SARAH CLARK, BOBBI LEHMEN
Functions of Hemoglobin
Effects of being transfused with incorrect blood type
Genitourinary/Renal: SARAH THOMPSON, CLAUDIA EVERS, ASHLEY WILLIAMS, KYNA APONTE
Blood hydrostatic pressure:
Week 2 Quiz Study Guide
Cellular Structure and Function:
Fluid and Electrolytes:
Acid/Base Balance:
Review basic concepts of acid/base balance including shifts in acid/base status
Results of hypoventilation on acid/base balance.
Cancer:
Review how cancer develops
Characteristics of benign cells/tumors
How tumors develop new vascular network
Biopsy results for tumor staging
Immunity:
Review cells involved in the immune response For example, what is their function and when do they appear?
Innate Immune System:
Adaptive Immunity

• B cells
• Review the concept of acute and chronic inflammation
• Review T-cell function
• How does the body recognize self from foreign antigen?
• How T-cells work
• Types of T- cells

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NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

NR-507 Week 4 Open Forum Discussion

This week, we are covering Alterations in Renal and Urinary Function. As you reflect on the concepts of fluid and electrolytes and acid/base balance covered in the last two weeks. Tell us one alteration that could occur in fluid and electrolyte and acid/base balance due to a renal or urinary disorder.

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NR 507 Week 5 Disease Process Presentation: Part Two (Collection)

Purpose

The purpose of the Week 5 Disease Process Assignment Part 2 is for learners to:

• Develop professional presentation/communication skills.
• Link development of initial presenting signs and symptoms of disease to change to tissue organ and system functioning.
• Describe how the disease is diagnosed.
• Describe pharmacological and non-pharmacological interventions for disease management. 
  

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NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

Requirements – Description of the Assignment

In Week 7, students will presentment an audio/video PowerPoint presentation using the Disease Process Presentation Guidelines and Rubric located under Course Resources. To ensure timely development of the Week 7 assignment and an opportunity to receive feedback from the course faculty, students will develop the Week 7 presentation in 2 parts.  Parts 1 and 2 will … submitted as a PowerPoint presentation that contains thorough speaker notes. After students have received faculty feedback on Parts 1 and 2, students will develop the final presentation that is audio and video recorded and uploaded to the Week 7 Discussion Board.

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Criteria for Content

1. Link changes in the tissue, organ, and system functioning to the initial presenting signs and symptoms seen in primary care of the disease.
2. Provide a brief description of how the disease is …
3. Provide a brief description of the pharmacological and non-pharmacological interventions used to treat and manage the disease.
4. Summarize the disease on final slide with concluding remarks, include implications of nurse practitioner practice.
5. Utilize at least two current peer review scholarly sources to support presentation content.
6. Reference slide and in-text citation.

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NR-507 Week 5 Open Forum Discussion

• Describe the presentation you would expect to see in a three-month-old baby boy with pyloric stenosis.
• What is the etiology of pyloric stenosis?
• How does the pathophysiological process of pyloric stenosis lead to the signs and
• What teaching would the FNP provide to the parents who are managing this infant at home?

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NR 507 Week 6 Discussion Question: Uticaria

A 12-year-old boy is brought to the office for evaluation of hives. He has no significant past medical history and no history of allergies. He has just joined the middle school soccer team and noticed that he gets hives about 10 minutes into practice. The hives are itchy and consist of irregular blotches on his legs and trunk, about 10–20 cm in size, and they persist for about 30 minutes. He does not experience swelling of the lips or oropharynx and denies any wheezing or shortness of breath. His physical examination is normal without skin lesions or oral swelling at that moment, and his lungs are clear. After evaluation, he is … with urticaria.

1. Discuss the likely cause of the patient’s urticaria.
2. Describe the cellular mechanism of urticaria and how it leads to the signs and symptoms experienced by the patient.
3. Describe the relationship between the patient’s symptoms and the concept of inflammation.
4. What pharmacological and non-pharmacologic treatment options are available?
5. Discuss the complications of urticaria.
6. What teaching would be appropriate to provide the parent and child about urticaria?
7. Support your response with at least one current evidence based resource.

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NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

NR 507 Week 7 Disease Process Presentation Peer Review (Collection)

Purpose

The purpose of this assignment is for learners to:

• Develop professional presentation/communication skills.
• Demonstrate an advancing understanding of pathophysiological processes of body systems that result in the diagnosis and treatment of patients who present with these disorders in these systems.
• … ability to analyze the literature to obtain the most current, evidence-based resources on the assigned disease process
• Demonstrate and practice professional communication and leadership, while advancing the education of peers. 

Course outcomes

1. Analyze pathophysiological mechanisms associated with select disease states –
2. Relate research findings to the management of patients with complex pathophysiologic dysfunction
   

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Description of the Assignment

Students are to review at least one peer Disease Process Presentation using the guidelines below. The peer review is due by Week 7

Criteria for Content

When reviewing a peer’s presentation, choose two of the criteria below and create questions, comments and feedback that center’s on the peer’s content provided under the chosen criteria. In your posting, clearly identify the two criteria chosen for the review. Suggested ways to review a peer’s presentation is to expound on the content provided under a given criterion by providing additional information or other points that could have also been included; ask pertinent questions that allows the peer to clarify and further expound on the criteria; if you disagree with a point made by a peer, explain why and provide further information supported by evidence to defend your position.

1. Introduce the disease with a brief definition and description.
2. Discuss the risk factors and the connection to the etiology of the initial injury to the cell/tissue/organ.
3. Discuss health care provider implications for prevention of the disease.
4. Show the progression from the initial injury to the defect in the tissue, organ and system functioning.
5. Link changes in the tissue, organ, and system functioning to the initial presenting signs and symptoms seen in primary care of the disease.
6. Provide a brief description of how the disease is diagnosed.
7. Provide a brief description of the pharmacological and non-pharmacological interventions used to treat and manage the disease.
8. Summarizes the disease on final slide with concluding remarks; includes implication for nurse practitioner practice.
9. Utilizes at least two current (within 5 years), peer-review scholarly sources to support presentation content.
10. Reference slide and in-text citations depict references correctly cited according to APA.

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NR-507 Week 7 Audio/Video Recorded Disease Process Presentation

Purpose

The purpose of the Disease Process Presentation is for learners to:

• Develop professional presentation/communication skills.
• Demonstrate an advancing understanding of pathophysiological processes of body systems that result in the diagnosis and treatment of patients who present with these disorders in these systems.
• … the ability to analyze the literature to obtain the most current, evidence-based resources on the assigned disease process.
• Demonstrate and practice professional communication and leadership, while advancing the education of peers. 

Due Date: Week 7 to both the Week 7 discussion board and the Week 7 assignment area.

Description of the Assignment

For Week 7 of the course you will create an audio/video recorded presentation that demonstrates your understanding of a selected disease process. This presentation will be uploaded into the course via Kaltura (see course resource for directions).

Criteria for Content

1. Introduce the disease with a brief definition and description.
2. Discuss the Risk Factors and the connection to the Etiology of the initial injury to the cell/tissue/organ.
3. Discuss health care provider implications for prevention of the disease.
4. Show the progression from the initial injury to the defect in the tissue, organ and system functioning.
5. Link changes in the tissue, organ, and system functioning to the initial presenting signs and symptoms seen in primary care of the disease.
6. Provide a brief description of how the disease is diagnosed.
7. Provide a brief description of the pharmacological and non-pharmacological interventions used to treat and manage the disease.
8. Summarizes the disease on final slide with concluding remarks; includes implication for nurse practitioner practice.
9. Utilizes at least two current (within 5 years), peer-reviewed scholarly sources to support presentation content.
10. Reference slide and in-text citations depict references correctly cited according to APA.

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NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1

NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1 to Week 8 Essay Assignment Paper

NR 507 Week 7 Quiz: (Quiz + Study Guide)

NR 507 Week 7 Quiz (Real Exam Solutions)

1. Question: A bone breaks in a place where there was pre-existing disease. What type of fracture is being described?
2. Question: Patients with osteoporosis are at risk for which of the following problems?
3. Question: The best screening test for osteoporosis is:
4. Question: Pain and inflammation associated with gout are caused by crystallization of _____ in the tissues.
5. Question: The chief pathologic feature of degenerative joint disease is:
6. Question: Reflux esophagitis is defined as:
7. Question: Gastric ulcers are characterized by:
8. Question: The most common cause of elevated liver function tests is:
9. Question: An individual is to begin a series of hepatitis B vaccines. You perform a test for a serogical marker, and the results show hepatitis B surface antibodies (HBsAb). You tell the individual that:
10. Question: Which of the following nutritional disorders is characterized by consumption of large amounts of food (binging) followed by self-induced vomiting and/or the use of laxatives (purging)?
11. Question: The pathophysiology of Type 1 Diabetes involves which of the following:
12. Question: The symptom of polyuria in Diabetes Mellitus is caused by:
13. Question: When evaluating the kidney function of a client with Diabetes Insipidus (DI) the nurse would observe:
14. Question: Chronic complications of Diabetes Mellitus (DM) include which of the following?
15. Question: Signs common to both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) include all of the following EXCEPT:
16. Question: A 56 y.o. male was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of osteomalacia. History reveals that he underwent bariatric surgery 3 years earlier. What is the common link between the surgery and the development of osteomalacia?
17. Question: A 70 y.o. female presents with a hip fracture secondary to osteoporosis. This condition is caused by an increase in bone:
18. Question: The diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis is based on the measurement of which laboratory value?
19. Question: A 36 y.o. old reports pain and weakness in the elbow. MRI reveals inflammation of the tendon and the presence of microtears where it attaches to bone. This condition is called:
20. Question: Transchondral fractures are most prevalent in:
    

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NR 507 Week 7 Quiz (Real Exam Solutions )

1. Question: A bone breaks in a place where there was pre-existing disease. What type of fracture is being described?
2. Question: Patients with Osteoporosis are at risk for which of the following problems?
3. Question: The best screening test for osteoporosis is?
4. Question: Reflux esophagitis is defined as?
5. Question: Which of the following nutritional disorders is characterized by consumption of large amounts of food (binging) followed by self-induced vomiting and/or the use of laxatives (purging)?
6. Question: The most common cause of elevated liver function test is?
7. Question: The chief pathologic feature of degenerative join disease is
8. Question: Gastric ulcers are characterized by
9. Question: An individual is to begin a series of hepatitis B vaccines. You perform a test for a serogical marker, and the results show hepatitis B surface antibodies (HBsAb). You tell the individual that:
10. Question: Pain and inflammation associated with gout are caused by crystallization of ____in the tissue.
11. Question: When evaluating the kidney function of a client with diabetes insipidus (DI) the nurse
12. Question: The diagnosis of rhabdomyolysis is based on the measurement of which laboratory value?
13. Question: A 36 years old reports pain and weakness in the elbow. MRI reveals inflammation of the tendon and the presence of microtears where it attaches to bone. This condition is called?
14. Question: Chronic complications of Diabetes Mellitus (DM) include which of the following?
15. Question: A 56y.o male was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of osteomalacia. History reveals that he underwent bariatric surgery 3 years earlier. What is the common link between the surgery and the development of osteomalcia?
16. Question: A 70 y.o. female presents with a hip fracture secondary to osteoporosis. This condition is caused by an increase in bone?
17. Question: Signs common to both type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus (DM) include all of the following EXCEPT:
18. Question: Transchondral fractures are most prevalent in?
19. Question: The symptom of polyuria in Diabetes Mellitus (DM) is caused by?
20. Question: The pathophysiology of type 1 Diabetes involves which of the following?

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NR 507 Week 7 Quiz (Study Guide – Questions-Answers)

Musculoskeletal:

 Types of fractures Definitions;

1. Question: The health care professional is caring for a person who has a pathologic fracture. The patient asks the professional to explain the condition. What response by the professional is best?
2. Question: A health care professional is providing education to a group of seasonal athletes. What type of fracture does the professional warn them to avoid?
3. Question: Improper reduction or immobilization of a fractured femur can result in which outcome after cast removal?
4. Question: What is the tear in a ligament … to as?
5. Question: Which type of osteoporosis would a person develop after having the left leg in a cast for 8 weeks to treat fracture of the tibia and fibula?
6. Question: A patient is … to the Emergency Department after … by neighbors. The patient says she has been lying on the floor in the house for 3 days. What action by the health care professional is best?
7. Question: The health care professional teaches a group of seniors that the most common clinical manifestation of osteoporosis is which of these?

Osteoporosis (types of fracture that is prevalent; screening test for osteoporosis);

Hip fractures, vertebral fractures (most common osteoporotic fracture)

1. Question: A health care professional is providing education to a group of seasonal athletes. What type of fracture does the professional warn them to avoid?
2. Question: By the time osteoporosis is visible on an x-ray examination, up to what percent of bone has been lost?
3. Question: A patient has a bone density T score of -2.8. What diagnosis does the health care professional educate the patient on?
4. Question: Which type of osteoporosis would a person develop after having the left leg in a cast for 8 weeks to treat fracture of the tibia and fibula?
5. Question: In osteoporosis, the receptor activator of nuclear factor κB (RANK) activates what?
6. Question: The health care professional teaches a group of seniors that the most common clinical manifestation of osteoporosis is which of these? 

Transchondral fractures; Separation of cartilaginous joint surface (articular cartilage) from main shaft of bone

Gout (cause of pain);

1. Question: A person in the health care clinic has gout. In order to prevent a common complication, what self-care measure does the health care professional teach the person about?
2. Question: What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?
3. Question: The pathophysiologic presentation of gout is closely linked to the metabolism of which chemical?
4. Question: A patient in the clinic has calcium crystals that are … with chronic gout. How does the professional document this finding?

• Pathological features of degenerative joint disease;
• Osteomalacia; epicondylopathy;
• Hip fractures secondary to osteoporosis;
• Diagnosing rhabdomyolysis
• Rapid breakdown of muscle that causes release of myoglobin into blood stream.

1. Question: A student asks for an explanation of rhabdomyolysis. What response by the professor is best?
2. Question: A patient is brought to the Emergency Department after … by neighbors. The patient says she has been lying on the floor in the house for 3 days. What action by the health care professional is best?
3. Question: A patient reports joint stiffness with movement and joint pain in weightbearing joints that is usually relieved by rest. What treatment option does the health care professional discuss with the patient?

Gastrointestinal:

Reflux Esophagitis;

1. Question: A patient asks the healthcare professional to describe the cause of gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). What response by the professional is best?
2. Question: A patient has been … with reflux esophagitis (GERD). What instruction by the healthcare professional is most appropriate?
3. Question: A class of students has learned about contributing factors to duodenal ulcers. What statement indicates to the professor that the students need a review?

Characteristics of Gastric Ulcers;

Increased serum gastrin, located in upper abdomen, intermittent pain, pain-antacid-relief pattern

1. Question: A peptic ulcer may occur in all of these areas except which?
2. Question: A class of students has learned about contributing factors to duodenal ulcers. What statement indicates to the professor that the students need a review?

• Causes of elevated liver function tests;
• Increase biliary
• Bulimia nervosa;

1. Question: A person has abnormally severe tooth decay and erosion of the tooth enamel. What problem should the health care professional assess the person for? a. Anorexia nervosa b. Binge eating c. Bulimia d. Refeeding syndrome

Anorexia Nervosa;

1. Question: A health care professional is caring for a patient … to the hospital with severe anorexia. What action by the health care professional would be most important?
2. Question: A patient weighs 82 pounds and is … for anorexia. In order to prevent refeeding syndrome, how many calories should the person eat in the first two days?
3. Question: A family is concerned that their most elderly member is not eating. What information about the anorexia of aging does the health care professional provide the family? (Select all that apply.)

Interpretation of Hepatitis B vaccine serological markers (for example, results show HbsAb-what information would you provide the patient?)

Endocrine:

• Pathophysiology of Type 1 diabetes;
• Classic signs of diabetes mellitus and their causes;
• Kidney function in the patient with diabetes insipidus;

1. Question: What is diabetes insipidus a result of?
2. Question: A patient who is … with a closed head injury has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day. Electrolytes are within normal limits, but the antidiuretic hormone (ADH) level is low. Although the patient has had no intake for 4 hours, no change in the polyuria level has occurred. What treatment or diagnostic testing does the healthcare professional prepare the patient for?
3. Question: Which laboratory value is consistent with diabetes insipidus (DI)?
4. Question: A patient has nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI). What treatment does the healthcare professional anticipate for this patient?

Chronic complications of diabetes mellitus;

1. Question: A patient with several risk factors is concerned about developing type 2 diabetes. The healthcare professional advises the patient to lose weight, explaining that obesity is an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus because it causes what?
2. Question: A student asks the professor to differentiate Type 2 diabetes mellitus from Type 1. The professors’ response would be that Type 2 is best … as what?
3. Question: A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experienced an episode of hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The healthcare professional teaches the person that what is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
4. Question: A chronic complication of diabetes mellitus is likely to result in microvascular complications in which areas? (Select all that apply.)

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NR 507 Week 7 Quiz (Study Guide – Completed)

• Musculoskeletal:
  • Types of fractures
  • Osteoporosis (types of fracture that is prevalent; screening test for osteoporosis)
  • Transchondral fractures
  • Gout (cause of pain)
  • Pathological features of degenerative joint disease
  • Osteomalacia
  • Epicondylopathy
  • Hip fractures secondary to osteoporosis
  • Diagnosing rhabdomyolysis
• Gastrointestinal:
  • Reflux esophagitis
  • Characteristics of gastric ulcers
  • Causes of elevated liver function tests
  • Bulimia nervosa
  • Anorexia nervosa
  • Interpretation of Hepatitis B vaccine serological markers (for example, results show HbsAb-what information would you provide the patient?)
• Endocrine:
  • Pathophysiology of Type 1 diabetes
  • Classic signs of diabetes mellitus and their causes
    • Type 1
    • Type 2
  • Kidney function in the patient with diabetes insipidus
  • Chronic complications of diabetes mellitus
    • Diabetic retinopathy
    • Diabetic kidney disease
    • Diabetic neuropathy
    • Cardiovascular Disease
    • Stroke
    • Peripheral Artery Disease
    • Infection
  • Signs common to both type 1 and type 2 diabetes
    • Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia
    • See above

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NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1

NR-507 Week 8 Reflection (2 Versions)

Reflect back over the past 8 weeks and describe how the achievement of the course outcomes in this course have prepared you to meet the MSN program outcome #1, MSN Essential I, and Nurse Practitioner Core Competencies # 1 Scientific Foundation Competencies

Program Outcome #1: Provide high quality, safe, patient-centered care grounded in holistic health principles. (holistic health & patient-centered care)

MSN Essential I: Background for Practice from Sciences and Humanities:

Recognizes that the master’s prepared nurse integrates scientific findings from nursing, biopsychosocial fields, genetics, public health, quality improvement, and organizational sciences for the continual improvement of nursing care across diverse settings.

Nurse Practitioner Core Competencies # 1 Scientific Foundation Competencies

• Critically analyzes data and evidence for improving advanced nursing practice.
• Integrates knowledge from the humanities and sciences within the context of nursing science.
• Translates research and other forms of knowledge to improve practice processes and outcomes.
• Develops new practice approaches based on the integration of research, theory, and practice knowledge.

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NR 507 Week 8 Final Exam (Collection Last 3 Years)

1. Question: What is the major virus … in the development of cervical cancer?
2. Question: Which statement accurately describes childhood asthma?
3. Question: The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is … to as:
4. Question: Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:
5. Question: Continued therapy of pernicious anemia (PA) generally lasts how long?
6. Question: Which statement best describes cystic fibrosis?
7. Question: What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx?
8. Question: As stated in the Frank-Starling law, a direct relationship exists between the _____ of the blood in the heart at the end of diastole and the _____ of contraction during the next systole.
9. Question: The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by:
10. Question: Carcinoma refers to abnormal cell proliferation originating from which tissue origin?
11. Question: Which of the following describes how the body compensates for anemia?
12. Question: What term is … a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra?
13. Question: Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance?
14. Question: After sexual transmission of HIV, a person can … infected yet seronegative for how many months?
15. Question: Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response?
16. Question: Which blood cells are the chief phagocytes … in the early inflammation process?
17. Question: Where are alveolar macrophages … ?
18. Question: Which normal physiologic change occurs in the aging pulmonary system?
19. Question: An infant diagnosed with a small patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) would likely exhibit which symptom?
20. Question: Hemophilia B is … by a deficiency of which clotting factor?
21. Question: A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is … :
22. Question: Which statement is true regarding pain and cancer?
23. Question: What is the anomaly in which the soft bony component of the skull and much of the brain is missing?
24. Question: At birth, which statement is true?
25. Question: What is the most commonly … symptom of cancer treatment?
26. Question: The common property among the three types of medications used to treat depression is that they:
27. Question: Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation?
28. Question: Congenital aganglionic megacolon (Hirschsprung disease) involves inadequate motility of the colon caused by neural malformation of which nervous system?
29. Question: What type of fracture occurs at a site of a preexisting bone abnormality and is a result of a force that would not normally cause a fracture?
30. Question: What is the leading cause of infertility in women?
31. Question: Alterations in which part of the brain are … to hallucinations, delusions, and thought disorders … with schizophrenia?
32. Question: What is the function of the mucus … by the Bartholin glands?
33. Question: People with gout are at high risk for which co-morbid condition?
34. Question: The tear in a ligament is … to as a:
35. Question: Regarding type 2 diabetes, obesity is … to be what type of risk?
36. Question: Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by nonalcoholic parents have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism?
37. Question: What causes the crystallization within the synovial fluid of the joint affected by gouty arthritis?
38. Question: It is true that Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS):
39. Question: The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes which disorder?
40. Question: Which dietary lifestyle choice has … with a decreased risk for developing colon cancer?
41. Question: The sudden apparent arousal in which a child expresses intense fear or another strong emotion while still in a sleep state characterizes which sleep disorder?
42. Question: Which virus is a precursor for developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) and cervical cancer?
43. Question: What anchors articular cartilage to the underlying bone?
44. Question: Which gastric cells secrete hydrochloric acid and intrinsic factor?
45. Question: Which water-soluble vitamin is … by passive diffusion?
46. Question: What is the first sign of puberty in girls?
47. Question: Pinkeye is … by inflammation of which structure?
48. Question: What syndrome, characterized by an absent homologous X chromosome with only a single X chromosome, exhibits features that include a short stature, widely spaced nipples, and webbed neck?
49. Question: A criterion for a … anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months?
50. Question: Obesity acts as an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus by:
51. Question: Which clinical manifestations would … for a child who has complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome?
52. Question: Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ?
53. Question: How can glaucoma cause blindness?
54. Question: Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of the brain’s:
55. Question: Which pain theory proposes that a balance of impulses conducted from the spinal cord to the higher centers in the central nervous system (CNS) modulates the transmission of pain?
56. Question: Where is oxytocin … ?
57. Question: An insufficient dietary intake of which vitamin can lead to rickets in children?
58. Question: What term is … the condition that exists when the urethral meatus is … on the undersurface of the penis?
59. Question: The most critical aspect in ly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is:
60. Question: Transcription is best … as a process by which:
61. Question: Which person is at the greatest risk for developing delirium?
62. Question: Which hormone is … to an increase in appetite during puberty?
63. Question: Which type of diarrhea results from lactose intolerance?
64. Question: An amniocentesis is … for pregnant women who:
65. Question: Which characteristic is true of type II (white fast-motor) muscle fibers?
66. Question: The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin?
67. Question: Dilation of the ipsilateral pupil, following uncal herniation, is the result of pressure on which cranial nerve (CN)?
68. Question: Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone?
69. Question: What is the first indication of nephrotic syndrome in children?
70. Question: The BRCA1 and BRCA2 mutations increase the risk of which cancer in women?
71. Question The data reporting that sickle cell disease affects approximately 1 in 600 American blacks is an example of which concept?
72. Question: When a woman’s uterus is … as protruding through the entrance of the vagina to the hymen, which grade of prolapse does this indicate?
73. Question: What is the term that denotes the duration of time or the intensity of pain that a person will endure before outwardly responding?
74. Question: Clinical manifestations that include irregular or heavy bleeding, the passage of large clots, and the depletion of iron stores support which diagnosis?
75. Question: What term describes the loss of the comprehension or production of language?
76. Question: The common hay fever allergy is … through a reaction that is … by which class of immunoglobulins?
77. Question: What is the treatment of choice for pernicious anemia (PA)?
78. Question: Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea?
79. Question: During an infection, why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender?
80. Question: What is the … mean blood pressure for an 8- to 9-year-old child?
81. Question: Stress-induced sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla causes the secretion of:
82. Question: What is the function of erythrocytes?
83. Question: Where are Kupffer cells … ?
84. Question: Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease?
85. Question: Where are Langerhans cells found?
86. Question: What is the primary cause of the symptoms of polycythemia vera?
87. Question: How is the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy measured?
88. Question: Which is an example of an endogenous antigen?
89. Question: Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions?
90. Question: Which renal change is found in older adults?
91. Question: What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated?
92. Question: What is the most common predisposing factor to obstructive sleep apnea in children?
93. Question: Kidney stones in the upper part of the ureter would produce pain referred to which anatomical area?
94. Question: What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies?
95. Question: Pressure in the left ventricle must exceed pressure in which structure before the left ventricle can eject blood?
96. Question: How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult?
97. Question: Oxygenated blood flows through which vessel?
98. Question: What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
99. Question: The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland?
100. Question: Exhaustion occurs if stress continues when which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is not successful?
101. QuestionWhen the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what reaction occurs?
102. Question: What is the basic structural unit in compact bone?
103. Question: Which type of fracture usually occurs in an individual who engages in a new activity that is strenuous and repetitive?
104. Question: Antipsychotic drugs block which neurotransmitter receptor?
105. Question: Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle?
106. Question: When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of what type of effect by a hormone?
107. Question: Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormone (TH) and is inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate. This is an example of:
108. Question: At 2 or 3 weeks of age, an infant who has been well fed and has gained weight begins to vomit for no apparent reason. The vomiting gradually becomes more forceful. These symptoms may be indicative of which disorder?
109. Question: Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder?
110. Question: What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor?
111. Question: A child with which genetic disorder has a characteristic cry?
112. Question: Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels?
113. Question: The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the increased level of which hormone?
114. Question: The major sleep center is located in which section of the brain?
115. Question: What is the second most commonly … genetic cause of mental retardation?
116. Question: A person with 47, XXY karyotype has the genetic disorder resulting in which syndrome?
117. Question: What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?
118. Question: What term is used to identify an interlacing bundle of dense, white fibrous tissue that is richly supplied with nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels?
119. Question: Open-angle glaucoma occurs because of:
120. Question: Loud snoring, a decrease in oxygen saturation, fragmented sleep, chronic daytime sleepiness, and fatigue are clinical manifestations of which sleep disorder?
121. Questions: What is the most common opportunistic infection associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?

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NR 507 Week 8 Final Study Guide (Collection)

NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1

This study guide is for the comprehensive final exam that will be given during Week 8.  Respondus Lockdown Browser is used for all quizzes and exams. It will cover the following concepts:

NR 507 Week 8 Final Study Guide (Variant 1)

• Reproductive:
  • Endometrial cycle (menstrual cycle) and the occurrence of ovulation
  • Uterine prolapse
  • Polycystic ovarian syndrome
  • Testicular cancer and conditions that increase risk
  • Symptoms that require evaluation for breast cancer
  • Signs of premenstrual dysphoric disorder
  • Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
  • Pathophysiology of prostate cancer
  • HPV and the development of cervical cancer
• Endocrine:
  • Body’s process for adapting to high hormone levels
  • Cushing’s Syndrome
  • Causes of hypoparathyroidism
  • Lab results that point to primary hypothyroidism
  • Pathophysiology of thyroid storm
  • Signs of thyrotoxicosis
• Neurological:
  • Dermatomes
  • Substance release at the synapse
  • Spondylolysis
  • Location of the motor and sensory areas of the brain
  • Pathophysiology of cerebral infarction
  • Excitotoxins
  • Agnosia
  • Accumulation of blood in a subarachnoid hemorrhage
  • Most common cause of meningitis
• Genitourinary: 
  • Diet and the prevention of prostate cancer
  • Impact of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy (BPH) on the urinary system
• Genetics: 
  • The role of DNA in genetics
  • Transcription
  • Effects of genetic mutations
  • Trisomy
  • Down Syndrome
  • Klinefelter syndrome
  • Diseases that have multifactorial traits
  • Multifactorial inheritance
  • Duchenne muscular dystrophy
  • Neurofibromatosis
• Musculoskeletal: 
  • Ions that initiate muscle contraction
  • Growth of long bones in children
  • Bones belonging to the appendicular skeleton
• Immunity/Inflammation: 
  • How vaccines are formed
  • Populations at risk for getting systemic fungal infections and parasitic infections
  • Systemic manifestations of infection
  • Mechanisms responsible for the increase in antimicrobial resistance worldwide
  • Functions of normal flora in the body
  • Desensitization therapy
  • Cells involved in “left shift” in the WBC count differential
  • Forms of immunity
  • Major histocompatibility class I antigens
  • Inflammatory chemicals blocked by anti-inflammatory drugs
  • Characteristics of acute phase reactant C-reactive protein
• Dermatology: 
  • Process by which a deep pressure ulcer heals
  • Complications of the development of contractures during wound healing
• Acid/Base: 
  • Causes of respiratory alkalosis
  • Molecules that act as buffers in the blood
• Cardiovascular: 
  • Most common cardiac valve disease in women
  • When myocardial ischemia may be reversible
  • Symptoms of stable angina
  • Orthostatic hypotension
  • Isolated systolic hypertension
  • Results of sustained controlled hypertension
  • The relationship of insulin resistance on the development of primary hypertension
  • Defects in the normal secretion of natriuretic hormones and the impact on renal system
  • Effects of increased sympathetic nervous system activity due to primary hypertension
  • Complications of unstable plaque in the coronary arteries
  • Forms of dyslipidemia associated with the development of the fatty streak in atherosclerosis
  • Events that initiate the process of atherosclerosis
  • Signs and symptoms of increased left atrial and pulmonary venous pressures in left sided heart failure
  • Differences between left and right sided heart failure
  • Infective endocarditis
• Peripheral vascular disease: 
  • Pathophysiology of deep vein thrombosis
  • Virchow’s triad
• Hematology: 
  • Physiological response to hypoxia in anemia
  • Populations at the highest risk for developing folate deficiency anemia
  • Causes of iron deficiency anemia
  • Expected lab test results found in long standing iron deficiency anemia
  • Sickle Cell Anemia
  • Causes of aplastic anemia
  • Underlying pathophysiologic mechanisms leading to autoimmune hemolytic anemia
  • Secondary polycythemia
  • Anemia of chronic renal failure
• Fluid and Electrolytes: 
  • Conditions that result in pure water deficit (hypertonic volume depletion)
  • Osmoreceptors that stimulate thirst and the release of ADH
  • Causes of hypernatremia
  • Effects of increased aldosterone
  • Dependent edema
  • Definition of isotonic
  • Principle of capillary oncotic pressure
  • Types of fluid compartments in the body
• Pulmonary: 
  • Most effective measure to prevent pulmonary embolus from developing in patients
  • When the practitioner will note tactile fremitus
  • Cause of acute airway obstruction in the patient with chronic bronchitis
  • Types of pneumothorax
  • Results of the loss of alph-1-antitrypsin in emphysema
  • The result of loss of surfactant in ARDS
  • Characteristics of Cheyne-Stokes respirations
• Shock: 
  • Causes of hypovolemic shock
  • How the body maintains glucose levels during shock 

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NR 507 Week 8 Final Study Guide (Variant 2)

Genitourinary:

• BPH:
• Prostate Cancer:

Shock:

• Blood Glucose:
• Hypovolemic Shock:

Acid/Base Balance:

• Respiratory Alkalosis:
• Buffer in Blood:

Peripheral Vascular Disease:

• DVT Pathophysiology:

Dermatology:

• Contractures:
• Deep Pressure Ulcer Healing:
  • Phase 1: inflammation
  • … proliferation and new tissue formation (reconstruction)
  • Phase 3: remodeling and maturation

Musculoskeletal:

• Contraction:
• Growth of Long Bones in Children:
• Bones in Appendicular Skeleton:

Genetics:

• DNA in Genetics:
• Transcription:
• Effects of Genetic Mutations
• Trisomy:
• Down Syndrome:
• Klinefelter Syndrome:
• Diseases that have Multifactorial Traits:
• Multifactorial Inheritance:
• Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy:
• Neruofibromatosis:

Endocrine:

• Adapting to High Hormone Levels:
• Signs/Symptoms of Thyrotoxicosis:
• Thyroid Storm:
• Hypothyroidism Lab Results:
• Hypoparathyroidism Causes:
• Cushing Syndrome:

Neurological:

• Dermatomes:
• Agnosia:
• Spondylolysis:
• Meningitis Causes:
• Subarachnoid Hemorrhage:
• Substance Release at the Synapse:
• Cerebral infarction Pathophysiology:
• Pathophysiology of Excitotoxins:

Fluids & Electrolytes:

• Pure Water Deficit (hypertonic volume depletion):
• Osmoreceptors that Stimulate Thirst and ADH Release:
• Causes of Hypernatremia:
• Effects of Increased Aldosterone
• Dependent Edema:
• Isotonic:
• Capillary Oncotic Pressure:
• Fluid Compartments:

Pulmonary:

• PE Prevention:
• Airway Obstruction in Chronic Bronchitis:
• Emphysema:
• Types of Pneumothorax:
• Cheyne-Stokes Respirations:
• Loss of Surfactant in ARDS:
• Tactile Fremitus:

Reproductive:

• Uterine Prolapse:
• Evaluate for Breast Cancer:
• Dysfunctional Uterine Bleeding:
• Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome:
• Signs of Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder:
• Endometrial Cycle and Ovulation:
• Testicular Cancer Risk Factors:
• Pathophysiology of Prostate Cancer:
• HPV to Cervical Cancer:

Hematology:

• Populations at Risk for Folate Deficiency Anemia:
• Causes of Iron Deficiency Anemia:
• Lab Results for Long Standing Iron Deficiency Anemia:
• Causes of Aplastic Anemia:
• Secondary Polycythemia:
• Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia:
• Sickle Cell Anemia:
• Anemia of Chronic Renal Failure:
• Physiologic Response to Hypoxia in Anemia:

Cardiovascular:

• Most Common Valve Disease in Women:
• Myocardial Ischemia:
• Symptoms of Stable Angina:
• Orthostatic Hypotension:
• Isolated Systolic HTN:
• Insulin Resistance and HTN:
• Natriuretic Hormones and Effects on Renal System:
• SNS and Primary HTN:
• Complications of Unstable Plaques:
• Process of Atherosclerosis Initiation:
• S/S of L Sided HF:
• Results of Sustained Controlled HTN:
• Difference in L and R sided HF:
• Dyslipidemia Associated with Formation of Fatty Streak:
• Infective Endocarditis:

Immunity/Inflammation:

• How Vaccines are Formed:
• Systemic Manifestations of Infection:
• Functions of Normal Flora:
• Mechanism for Antimicrobial Resistance:
• Desensitization Therapy:
• Cells Involved in Left Shift:
• Forms of Immunity:
• Histocompatibility Class I Antigens:
• Chemicals Blocked by Anti-Inflammatory Drugs:
• C-Reactive Protein:
• Populations at Risk for Fungal/Parasitic Infections:

---

NR 507 Week 8 Final Study Guide (Variant 3, 4)

REPRODUCTIVE

• Endometrial cycle and occurrence of ovulation
• Uterine Prolapse
• PCOS
• Testicular cancer & Risk factors
• Symptoms that require evaluation for Breast Cancer
• Signs of premenstrual dysphoric disorder (PMDD)
• Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
• Pathophysiology of prostate cancer
• HPV and development of cervical cancer

ENDOCRINE

• Body’s process for adapting to high hormone levels:
• Cushing’s Syndrome:
• Hypoparathyroidism CX:
• Lab results point to primary hypothyroidism:
• Primary hypothyroidism DX:
• Pathophysiology of thyroid storm:
• Signs of thyrotoxicosis:

NEURO

• Dermatomes
• Substance release at synapse
• Spondylolysis
• Location of motor and sensory areas of the brain

GENITOURINARY

• Diet and prevention of prostate cancer
• Impact of BPH on the Urinary System

GENETICS

• The role of DNA in genetics
• Transcription
• Effects of genetic mutations –
• Down syndrome/ Trisomy:
• Klinefelter syndrome:
• Duchenne muscular dystrophy
• Neurofibromatosis
• diseases that have multifactorial traits/multifactorial inheritance
• What is multifactorial inheritance?

MUSCULOSKELETAL

• Ions that initiate muscle contraction:
• Growth of long bones in children:
• Bones belonging to the appendicular skeleton:

IMMUNITY

• How vaccines are performed
• Populations are risk for getting systematic fungal infections and parasitic infections
• Systematic manifestations of infection
• Mechanism responsible for the increase in antimicrobial resistance worldwide
• Functions of normal body flora
• Desensitization therapy
• Cells involved in the “left shift” in the WBC count differential
• Forms of Immunity
• Major histocompatibility class (MHC) I antigens (7th Edition, pg. 233-235, 244)
• Inflammatory chemicals blocked by anti-inflammatory drugs (7th Edition, pg. 207)
• Characteristics of acute phase reactant C-reactive protein (CRP) (7th Edition, pg. 214)

DERMATOLOGY

• Process by which a deep pressure ulcer heals:
• Phases of wound healing: Inflammatory-Proliferation-Maturation
• Complications of the development of contractures during wound healing:

ACID/BASE

• Causes of respiratory alkalosis:
• Molecules that act as buffers in the blood:

CARDIOVASCULAR

• Most common cardiac valve disease in women
• When myocardial ischemia may be reversible
• Symptoms of stable angina (angina pectoris)
• Orthostatic hypotension
• Isolated systolic HTN
• Sustained controlled HTN
• Relationship of insulin resistance on the development of primary hypertension; pg 1136.
• Defects in normal secretion of natriuretic hormones & impact on renal system; pg 1134
• Effects of increased sympathetic nervous system activity due to primary HTN; pg 1133
• Complications of unstable plaque in the coronary arteries:
• Forms of dyslipidemia associated with the development of the fatty streak in atherosclerosis:
• Events that initiate the process of atherosclerosis:
• S&S of ­Left Atrial &Pulmonary venous pressures in Left Sided HF
• Difference between L & R sided © failure
• Infective Endocarditis

PERIPHERAL VASCULAR DISEASE

• Peripheral vascular disease:
• Deep Vein Thrombosis pathophysiology
• Vichow’s traid:

HEMATOLOGY

• Physiological response to hypoxia in anemia
• Populations at highest risk for developing folate deficiency anemia
• Cause of Iron Deficiency Anemia
• Expected lab test results found in long standing Iron Deficiency Anemia
• Sickle Cell Anemia
• Aplastic Anemia
• Pathophysiology of Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia
• Secondary polycythemia Vera
  Anemia of chronic renal failure

FLUIDS & ELECTROLYTES

• Conditions that result in pure water deficit (hypertonic volume depleted)
• Osmoreceptors that stimulate thirst and the release of ADH
• Causes of hypernatremia
• Effects of increased aldosterone
• Dependent edema
• Definition of isotonic
• Principle of capillary oncotic pressure
• Types of fluid compartments in the body 

PULMONARY

• most effective measure to prevent pulmonary embolus from developing in patients
• when the practitioner will note tactile fremitus
• cause of acute airway obstruction in the patient with chronic bronchitis

TYPES OF PNEUMOTHORAX

• Results of the loss of alph-1- antitrypsin in emphysema
• The result of loss of surfactant in ARDS
• Characteristics of Cheyne-Stokes respirations 
• NR 507 Advanced Pathophysiology Entire Coursework Weeks 1

SHOCK

• Causes of hypovolemic shock (7th Edition, pg. 1672-3)
• How the body maintains glucose levels during shock (7th Edition, pg. 1670)

NR 507 Week Five Quiz Study Guide

1. What controls the direct stimulation of the insulin-secreting cells?
2. Types of protein hormones

–Which of the following is an example of the protein hormone?

3. Assessing patients for elevated thyroxine production

–A patient who has elevated thyroxine production should be assessed for which accompanying condition?

4. Direct effect of insulin binding to receptors

–What type of effect occurs when insulin binds to its receptors on muscle cells, resulting in an increase in glucose uptake by those muscle cells?

5. Lipid-soluble hormone receptors crossing plasma membrane

–How do lipid-soluble hormone receptors cross the plasma membrane?

6. Effects of the removal of the posterior pituitary

–How do the releasing hormones that are made in the hypothalamus travel to the anterior pituitary?

–If a patient’s posterior pituitary is removed, which hormone would the nurse expect to decrease?

7. Insulin regulation

–Insulin is primarily regulated by

8. Hormone-secreting tumor of the pancreas—what would increase?

–A patient is diagnosed with a hormone-secreting tumor of the pancreas alpha cells. Which of the following would the nurse expect to be most likely increased in this patient?

9. The effect of insulin on electrolytes

–A nurse recalls insulin has an effect on which of the following groups of electrolytes?

10. Hormonal regulation involved in child birth and stopping uterine bleeding?

–A 39-year-old female is recovering from the birth of her third child. Which hormone would help prevent uterine bleeding?

• Types of immunity-e.g. innate, active, etc
• Alveolar ventilation/perfusion
• Dermatologic conditions e.g. pityriasis rosea
• Croup
• Types of anemia
• Macrocytic-normochromic anemias:
• Microcytic-hypochromic anemias:
• Normocytic-normochromic Anemias:
• Mnemonic for different types of anemia-
• The inflammatory process upon injury
• GI symptoms resulting in heart burn
• Pulmonary terminology such as dyspnea, orthopnea, etc
• Complications of gastric resection surgery
• Dermatology terminology-macules, nevi, etc
• Chicken pox
• Maternal immune system
• Candidiasis exacerbation
• Carbuncles
• Terms such as hypochromic, macrocytic, microcytic, etc
• Antibodies, IgG, IgA, etc
• Skin cancer
• Parts of the heart in terms of function, such as pericardium
• Congenital heart defects
• Urinary tract obstruction,
• GI symptoms of conditions such as pyloric stenosis, hiatal hernia, ulcerative colitis
• Skin cancer lesions
• Gastroesophageal reflux disease
• Hypersensitivity reaction
• Congenital intrinsic factor deficiency
• Acid base imbalance
• Acute epiglottitis
• Types of gastric ulcers-signs and symptoms, characteristics
• Lupus
• General adaptation syndrome
• Ventilation/perfusion ratio
• Bile salt deficiencies
• Clonal selection
• Obstructive sleep apnea
• Large bowel obstruction
• Vaginal candidiasis
• Folate deficiency
• Pancreatic insufficiency
• Types of fractures
• Genetic disorders such as Down Syndrome, Turner Syndrome, etc
• Vitamin B-12 therapy
• Glaucoma
• Cervical immunoglobulin
• Concept of pain **See pgs 485-495
• Autosomal dominant diseases (ADD) pg 152-154
• Congenital murmurs
• Lactose intolerance
• Angiotensin-renin system
• AIDS
• Carcinoma
• Hormonal regulation of calcium
• Neural tube defect
• Types of hormones-Types of hormones by structure
• Glycoprotein
• Kidney stones
• Type 2 diabetes
• Pituitary hormone secretion
• Signs of breast cancer-
• Alzheimer’s disease-
• Guillain-Barre Syndrome
• Sympathetic/parasympathetic nervous system *See pg 471-476
• ACTH
• Bartholin glands (pg 772)
• Gonococcal disease (pg 920-922)
• Glomerulonephritis-
• Small patent ductus arteriosus (PDA)-
• Risk factors for hypertension- (HTN= >120/>80)
• Loss of language and/or comprehension-such as terms-aphasia, etc. –(Data Processing Deficits)
• Chronic inflammatory joint disease
• Male and female sex hormone production *See pgs 789-791 and 795-6 (male) and 776-78 (female)
• Endogenous antigen-
• Genital warts-
• Pancreatic enzymes-
• Process of muscle contraction-
• Cervical dysplasia-
• Consanguinity
• Nephrotic syndrome

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